Q:I know this is stupid, however….
if my mortgage was (say) 50,000, and my house was being bought for (say) 60,000 and over the last few years I'd paid off about 4000…
when the money was paid over to me, am I right in thinking my mortgage provider would get 46,000 and I would receive 14,000?
Please don't feel stupid asking us this kind of thing. OK it may be straightforward and your assumption WAS correct, but sometimes people ASSUME things and get it wrong because they were afraid to ask their solicitor!
As a conveyancing solicitor I believe the information given in the post to be useful but I accept no liability except to fee-paying clients
tags: mortgage provider, stupid question
posted in mortgage by admin
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